CONTACT: PRAKASH
Mob: +919741410271 /
+918722788493
CORPORATE GOVERNANCE PROFESSIONAL
Multiple Choices:
1. Corporate
Governance is________.
a) About ethical
conduct in business
b) Direct or
indirect concerns in the organization
c) A
manufacturing system
d) None of the
above
2. The term
corporate governance is derived from the__________.
a) Greek word
b) English word
c) French word
d) Latin word
3. The
definition “Corporate Governance is the system by which business directed and
controlled” is given by
a) SEBI
committee
b) OECD
committee
c) Cadbury
committee
d) All of the
above
4. Internal
control is implemented by the________.
a) Board of
directors
b) Audit
committee
c) Management
d) All of the
above
5. OECD stands
for__________
6. Which of the
following have the power to hire fire and compensate the top management?
a) Board of
directors
b) Audit
committee
c) Shareholders
d) Management
7. CII stands
for ______________
8. The managers
are expected to act in the interest of:
a) Audit
committee
b) Stakeholders
c) Employees
d) Customers
9. To endorse
the organization strategy, develop directional policy, appoint, supervise and
remunerate senior executives and to ensure accountability of the organization
to its owners and authorities is the responsibility of:
a) CEO
b) Manager
c) Top
management
d) Board of
directors
10. SEBI stands
for_________________
11. The role of
corporate governance is_______
a) To ensure the
efficient use of resources
b) It increases
the shareholders’ value
c) Reduce the
procurement and inventory cost
d) All of the
above
12. Which of the
following is not the issue of corporate governance?
a) Internal
control
b) Compensation
of CEO and other directors
c) Management of
risk
d) Rights of
corporation
13. The annual
report should not include
a) How decision
are taken by the board
b) The name of
the chairman, CEO and other directors
c) Ability to
hire management
d) The number of
meeting
14. __________
is equal to the market price of his holding in shares.
a) Stakeholders
wealth
b) Ethical
conduct
c) Shareholder’s
wealth
d) None of these
15. The key
element of good corporate governance principle include
a) Honesty
b) Mutual
respect
c) Performance
orientation
d) All of the
above
16. SOX stands
for_____________________
17. The commonly
accepted principle of corporate governance are___________
a) Protection of
shareholders right
b) Role and
responsibilities of board
c) Interest of
other stakeholders
d) All of the
above
18. CII
developed code of corporate governance in__________________
a) 1997
b) 1996
c) 1994
d) 1878
19. The property
right is views simply as _________________
a) Planning
right
b) Control right
c) Both a &
b
d) None of the
above
20. In which
type of model the supervisory board is elected by shareholders and labor
unions?
a) Japanese
model
b) Anglo
American model
c) German model
d) The Indian
perspective
21. Which of the
following come under the five principles of ethical power for organization?
a) Purpose
b) Pride
c) Patience
d) All of the
above
22. Which of the
following are the theories of corporate governance?
a) Shareholders
theory vs. stakeholders’ theory
b) Stewardship
theory
c) Property
right theory
d) All of the
above
23. The
stewardship theory is__________
a) Control
oriented
b) Involvement
oriented
c) Both a &b
d) None of these
24. ____________
include government nominees and representatives of financial institutions.
a) Board of
directors
b) Creditors,
suppliers
c) Nominee
directors
d) Chief executive
officer
25. The
__________ oversees internal control and disclosure controls and procedures for
financial reporting.
a) Nominating
committee
b) Audit
committee
c) Board
committee
d) Higgs
committee
26. MDAR stands
for_______________
27. Liaison committee
designed to make a link between two groups or committees.
a) True
b) False
28. Cadbury
committee established in______________
a) 1999
b) 1995
c) 1992
d) 2002
29. How many
recommendation is made by CII code a)
17
b) 18
c) 16
d) 19
30. Kumar mangalam
committee is appointed by the__________
a) CII
b) SEBI
c) Government
d) None of the
above
31. The
remuneration of the non-executive directors should be decided by the______
a) Board of
directors
b) Top
management
c) Stakeholders
d) Entire board
32. Which of the
following committee was appointed by the SEBI to make recommendations on the representation
of independent directors on company board and the composition of audit committee?
a) Cadbury
committee
b) Kumar
mangalam committee
c) Naresh
Chandra committee
d) Board
committee
33. Basic
shareholders rights include the right to.
a) Secure
methods of ownership
b) Convey or
transfer shares
c) Participate
and vote in general shareholder meetings
d) All of the
above
34. Which of the
following is use to ensure that the takeover bids are serious?
a) Disclosure
b) Trigger
c) Escrow
d) Creeping
acquisition
35. Which of the
following are the natures of complaints by shareholders?
a) Non receipt
of dividend
b) Change of
address
c) Transmission
of shares
d) All of the
above
36. The word
“transmission” means -
a) Transfer by
operation of law
b) Transfer by
operation
c) Both a &
b
d) None of the
above
37. Competition,
debt covenants, takeover and media pressure are the_____
a) Internal
corporate governance controls
b) External
corporate governance control
c) Both a &
b
d) None of the
above
38. Simple
directors who attends board meeting of a company and participate of a company
and participate in the matters before the board is -
a) Ordinary
directors
b) Managing directors
c) Executive
directors
d) Shadow
directors
39. The director
who perform a specific role in a company under a service contract which requires
a regular, possibly daily, involvement in management is known as________
a) Non-executive
director
b) Additional
director
c) Executive
director
d) Ordinary
director
40. Which of the
following is the duty of directors?
a) Statutory
duties
b) Duties of
general nature
c) Both a &
b
d) None of the
above
a) Duty of good
faith
b) Duty of care
c) Duty not to
delegate
d) To disclose
interest
42. A document
that specifies the regulations for a company’s operation is known as________
a) Memorandum of
association
b) Articles of
association
c) Both a & b
d) None of the
above
43. Any person,
company, or other institution that owns at least one share in a company is
known
as________
a) Stakeholder
b) Employees
c) Shareholder
d) Customer
44. Nomination
committee is appointed by the
a) CEO
b) Board of directors
c) Management
d) Audit
committee
45. The profit
earned by the company with reference to the cost of capital in terms of
economic profit is referred to as______
a)
Pay-performance
b) Organization
bylaws
c) Economic
value added
d) None of the
above
46. Which of the
following are the types of the auditor?
a) Internal
b) External
c) Government
d) All of the
above
47. The auditors
specialize in crimes and are used by law enforcement organization when financial
documents are involved in a crime is known as_______
a) Forensic
auditor
b) Government
auditor
c) External
auditor
d) Internal
auditor
48. Set of
standards against which the quality of audits is performed and may be judges
is______
a) Generally
accepted accounting principles
b) General
accepted auditing standards
c) Audit
d) None of the
above
49. A
______________ audit is a review in which an auditor analyzes and verifies
various records and processes relating to a company’s quality programs.
a) Cost audit
b) Forensic
audit
c) Quality audit
d) None of the
above
50. The
important aspects of cost audit are_______
a) Property
audit
b) Efficiency
audit
c) Both a &
b
d) Government
audit
51. SICA stands
for_______________
52. BIFR stands
for_______________
53. Basic
principles of audit are_______________
a) Integrity,
objectivity & independence
b)
Confidentiality
c) Documentation
d) All of the
above
54. As per the
SEBI guidelines, the audit committee shall meet at leasta)
a) Twice a year
b) Thrice a year
c) Once a year
d) None of the
above
55. _________________
opined that the chairman of the audit committee should be an independent
director.
a) Cadbury
committee
b) Board
committee
c) KM Birla
committee
d) Audit
committee
56. An audit
committee should aware of technological changes, which is_________________ risk/condition.
a) Internal
b) External
c) Both a &
b
d) None of the
above
57. The
committees of the board involve_________________
a) Supervisory
committee
b) Risk
management committee
c) Shareholders’
redressal committee
d) All of these
58. NBFCs stands
for_________________
59. CSR stands
for_________________
60. Which of the
following is the essential of accord of Basel II?
a) Capital
adequacy
b) Risk based
supervision
c) Market
disclosure
d) All of the
above
61. Which of the
following are the objectives of Basel II ?
a) To promote
adequate capitalization of banks
b) To ensure
better risk management
c) To strengthen
the stability of banking system
d) All of the
above
62. The ganguly
committee is of the view that the draft minutes of the board meeting should be
forwarded to the director’s within______________ hours of meeting.
a) 56
b) 64
c) 48
d) 32
63. In which
ethical principle of the business ethics are measured by rightness of an act
and depend little on the results of this act?
a) Teleological
ethical system
b) Deontological
ethical system
c) Hybrid theory
d) Individual
freedom
64. One of the
major ethical issue in advertising is the use of______________
a) True
b) False
65. Major social
responsibilities of business involve
a) Optimum
utilization of scarce national resources
b)
Responsibility no to make losses
c) Improve
quality of life
d) All of above
66. Government
is thinking of making it mandatory for the companies to spend_________________%
of their net profits on CSR.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
67. It is the
responsibility of the firm towards its________________ to avoid any type of
cartel formation that a attempts to reap monopoly profits.
a) Shareholders
b) Customers
c) Employees
d) Management
68. Four
important group that business are shareholders, employees, customers
and_________________
a) Management
b) Board of
director
c) Society
d) Stakeholder
69. NGO stands
for_________________
70. Employees
should get_________________ wages
a) Clear
b) Minimum
c) Maximum
d) Fair
71. Objectives
of environmental audit are__________
a) Verification
of legislative and regulatory compliance
b) Assessment of
internal policy and procedural conformamance
c) Establishment
of current practice status
d) All of the
above
72. Review of
documents and records, Review of policies, interviews are comes under which
stage
a) Pre-audit
stage
b) Post-audit
stage
c) Audit stage
d) None
73. Environment
protection act was passed in________________ for the protection of environment.
a) 1988
b) 1999
c) 1986
d) 1990
74. The
financial or non-financial support of an activity, used primarily to reach the
given business goals
is_______
a) Media
b) Finance
c) Both a &b
d) Sponsorship
75. A printed
report giving news or information of interest to a special group.
a) Newsletter
b) Formal
meeting
c) Mailing list
d) Media release
76. Media can be
used to promote_______________ communication.
a) One way
b) Two way
c) Both a &
b
d) None of the
above
77. Businesses
arrange for______________ meetings with powerful stakeholders.
a) Information
display
b) Public forum
c) Formal
meeting
d) Informal
meeting
78. MRTP stands
for_________________
79. IRDA stands
for_________________
80. It is said
to be exist where there is a large number of procedures (firms) producing a same
kind of product.
a) Monopoly
competition
b) Monopolistic
competition
c) Perfect
competition
d) None of the
above
81. Which of the
following aspects of economic activity is not control by MRTP?
a) Restrictive
on buying/selling
b) Unfair trade
practices
c) Concentration
of economic power
d) Restrictive
trade practices
82. Price
control is the restriction on maximum prices that is established and maintained
by the government.
a) True
b) False
83. Public
policy is an attempt by the government to address a private issue.
a) True
b) False
84. The SEBI was
established on________________
a) March 12,
1992
b) September 14,
1992
c) April 12,
1992
d) June 15, 1993
85. The seller
of the security is________
a) Bear
b) Bull
c) Both a &
b
d) None of the
above
86. Insider
trading can be defined as the sale or purchase of securities by persons who
possess price sensitive information about the company.
a) True
b) False
87. ___________
makes a commitment to get the underwritten issue subscribed either by other or
by them.
a)
Utilitarianism
b) Underwriters
c) Insider
trading
d) None of the
above
88. The board of
SEBI consists of_______________
a) 8
b) 7
c) 4
d) 6
89. SEBI has
three functions rolled into one body quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial, and
quasi-executive.
a) True
b) False
90. SEBI is the
regulator for the securities market in India.
a) True
b) False
91. AMFI stands
for_________________.
92. Buying a
commodity at a low price and instantly selling it for a higher price in another
market is known as________
a) Hedging
b) Speculating
c) Arbitrage
d) Shifting of
risk
93. An
over-the-counter market where buyers and sellers conduct foreign exchange
transaction.
a) Commodity
exchange
b) Foreign
direct investment
c) FOREX
d) None of the
above
94. Licensing
grant a permit to aloe the use of something or to allow a business activity to
take place.
a) True
b) False
95. Government
often uses quotas to restrict export.
a) True
b) False
96. Private
companies can enjoy the right to transfer shares.
a) True
b) False
97. India has 22
stock exchanges.
a) True
b) False
98. Foreign
companies are those, which have been incorporated outside India and conduct
business in India.
a) True
b) False
99. Clause 49
has been prepared by the Reserve Bank of India.
a) True
b) False
100. Corporate Governance
ensures easy access to capital.
a) True
b) False
CONTACT: PRAKASH
Mob: +919741410271 /
+918722788493
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